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If a pilot proficiency check (PPC) was taken on December 23, 2018, when will it expire if used within a 702 operation?
According to the Commercial Air Service standards, what equipment is required for an operator to receive approval for reduced VFR flight minima:
Which of the following is true regarding Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)?
Where the pilot-in-command directs that safety belts be fastened, every passenger responsible for an infant for which no child restraint system is provided, shall be responsible for no more than . . . . . infant(s)
A 30-year-old pilot who renewed their Category 3 medical on March 15th, 2010 may exercise the privileges of a private pilot licence until
An air operator shall, for each flight crew member, keep a record of:
Class _____ airspace will be designated from the base of all high-level controlled airspace, or from 700 feet AGL, whichever is higher, up to and including FL600.
If a flight crew member is assigned to night duty, their flight duty period may only be extended for _____ consecutive nights.
In controlled high level airspace a prescribed track between specified fixes is known as a:
Large Airplane means one with a Maximum Certified Takeoff Weight (MCTOW) of:
The term aerial work applies to the operation of an aeroplane or helicopter involving:
Which of the following is an example of an aviation incident involving aircraft having a maximum certified takeoff weight greater than 2,250 kg?
No person shall operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than . . . . . knots if the aircraft is below . . . . . feet within . . . . . NM of a controlled aerodrome unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance.
What action should a pilot take if no altimeter setting is available prior to takeoff in the standard pressure region?
Frost, ice or snow on top of deicing or anti icing fluids:
If a person is suffering, or likely to suffer from fatigue:
VFR aircraft operating in Class A airspace must have:
No person shall conduct a takeoff in a power-driven aircraft, other than an ultra-light aeroplane, unless the following operational and emergency equipment is carried on board:
The windsock must be visible for aircraft at an altitude of . . . . . feet AGL.
Every person who is the holder of any pilot licence or permit shall, on demand, produce such licence or permit for inspection by persons authorized by the Minister, by peace officers and:
Every aircraft shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to provide for:
VFR flight is only permitted in controlled airspace if the following conditions are met:
Each person on board an aircraft shall have access to a life preserver, individual flotation device or personal flotation device when:
Before entering an MF area the PIC shall report:
Which of the following equipment is NOT required for power-driven aircraft operating in controlled airspace?
A pilot at Airport A with a field elevation of 500 feet ASL, sets the altimeter to the local altimeter setting of 30.10 in. Hg prior to departure for Airport B which has a field elevation of 1,000 feet ASL. A flight altitude of 8,000 feet is selected for the westbound flight so as to clear a 6,800-foot mountain ridge about 40 NM from Airport B. The pilot does not change the altimeter setting until he makes radio contact with Airport B, 25 NM out and receives an altimeter setting of 29.20 in. Hg.
Â
Ignoring other possible errors, when the aircraft crossed the mountain ridge what was the actual obstacle clearance?
If an air parcel rises and becomes saturated, it will begin to cool at the:
Severe icing will usually be found:
WSCN32 CWEG 262233
SIGMET H1 VALID 262230/270230 CWEG-
CZEG EDMONTON FIR SEV TURB OBS WTN 30 NM OF LINE /N4939 W11219/20 E CYQL –
/N4935 W11450/30 E CYXC SFC/FL030 QS NC
RMK GFACN32 GFACN31
END/WSCN22/CWAO
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the SIGMET provided above?
A trough is a(n):
A squall line is a:
On a GFA, when convective clouds are described as OCNL, this indicates a spatial coverage of:
On a METAR, drifting (DR) is used as a qualifier if snow, dust or sand is raised less than:
Orographic thunderstorms are most likely to occur:
Radiation cooling that occurs at night will affect:
What cloud type will most likely form when cold moist air moves over a warm surface?
A cold front with a steep slope would produce:
A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
TAF CYXE 281139Z 2812/2912 24010G25KT WS011/ 27050KT 3SM –SN BKN010 OVC040 TEMPO 2818/2901 1 1/2SM –SN BLSN BKN008 PROB30 2820/2822 1/2SM SN VV005
FM290130Z 28010KT 5SM –SN BKN020
BECMG 2906/2908 000000KT P6SM SKC
RMK NXT FCST BY 281800Z
According to the TAF, between 0600Z and 0800Z:
Showery precipitation and large rain droplets are usually indicative of:
Frost is formed by:
_____ is the atmospheric temperature below which water droplets begin to condense.
Graphic area forecast (GFA) charts are issued _____ times daily.
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to:
Using the GFA provided, what is the forecast speed and direction of the TROWAL southwest of CYVR?
A moist air mass that develops over water is classified as a . . . . . air mass.
Earth’s atmosphere is primarily composed of:
All forecasted temperatures for altitudes above _____ are negative on upper winds and temperature forecasts (FDs).
Mechanical turbulence is strongest in areas with:
During a climb winds typically:
The use of carburetor heat:
As the CG moves towards the forward limit:
Which of the following are functions of an engine lubrication system:
Total Weight: 2,475 pounds
CG Station: 41 inches
Determine the location of the CG if 50 pounds of baggage is added to station 120.
A pilot is about to depart runway 34R. At the time of departure the METAR reports winds at 330° at 12 knots. The variation is 10°E. Using the crosswind component chart, determine the headwind and crosswind components.
An aircraft experiences a strong head wind followed by a sudden tailwind near the ground. The wind shear hazard to be expected is:
The standard weight of an infant is:
Flight crew members who require decompression stops on the way to the surface when SCUBA diving should not fly for:
For a rotating tire, the hydroplaning speed:
Heading indicators should be reset against the compass every _____ minutes due to precession error.
A turn towards the south will cause a magnetic compass to momentarily:
Relatively small amounts of alcohol affect tolerance to hypoxia, this tolerance
In the event of a full pitot blockage, the airspeed indicator:
An excessively lean mixture may cause:
_____ may occur during the sudden movement of the head in a different plane, such as looking at something in a different part of the flight deck.
Ignoring any instrument or position errors, in what conditions will the indicated airspeed be most similar to the true airspeed?
As the water content of the air:
Which precision approach path indicator (PAPI) indicates an aircraft is slightly high?
Planned ramp fuel, taxi fuel and fuel burn are 410, 20 and 200 gallons respectively. Using the charts provided, select the correct statement. [Loading Arrangement] [Fuel Moment] [CG Envelope]
Weight | Arm | Moment | |
---|---|---|---|
Aft Cargo (AFT) | 400 lbs | ||
Empty Weight | 9,226 lbs | 2,582,300 lb-in | |
Pilots and Equipment | 375 lbs | ||
Row 1 | 175 lbs | ||
Row 2 | 180 lbs | ||
Row 3 | 170 lbs | ||
Row 4 | 160 lbs | ||
Row 5 | 160 lbs | ||
Row 6 | 167 lbs | ||
Row 7 | 150 lbs | ||
Row 8 | 160 lbs | ||
Row 9 | 160 lbs | ||
Nose Cargo Comportment | 130 lbs | ||
Forward Cabin | 200 lbs | ||
Aft Cargo (FWD) | 500 lbs |
In a banked attitude, dihedral results in:
An aircraft in a level turn with a 33° bank angle will experience a load factor of:
On a constant-speed-propeller, once a specific RPM is selected, a governor automatically adjusts the:
OAT: 20°C
Field Elevation: 6,899 feet
Altimeter Setting:Â 29.81 in. Hg
Takeoff Weight:Â 10,200 pounds
Wind Strength:Â 20 knots
Wind Direction: 210°M
Runway: 27
Runway Gradient:Â 2% uphill
Using the information and chart provided, calculate the takeoff distance.
A _____ is a list that allows for the operation of aircraft with particular equipment inoperative.
A(n) _____ determines the height of an aircraft above the terrain by measuring the time needed for a pulse of radio-frequency energy to travel from the aircraft to the ground and return.
An airplane flies over position A which is due north of a VOR located in position B. The variation of position A is 15°W and variation in position B is 8° W. What radial from B is the aircraft on?
Activating a DRCO system is accomplished via the aircraft radio transmitter by keying the microphone button _____ times.
15 gallons of AVGAS weighs approximately _____ pounds.
Refer to the low chart provided. An aircraft at 7,500 feet on a heading of 090° tunes to the YEV VOR and with the CDI centred has a 090 FROM indication. Simultaneously, the same aircraft has a relative bearing of 114° to the YPC NDB. Which statement is true regarding the aircraft position?
An aircraft equipped with dual VOR receivers is overhead Embrun flying direct to the YOW VOR. Both receivers are tuned to the same radial and each dot represents 2° of deviation. Which statement is correct?
The DME system operates in the:
Refer to the twilight chart and CFS extract provided. The start of morning civil twilight at CYGK on March 3rd is:
An aircraft crosses the 192° radial at 1907Z and the 174° radial at 1921Z. Its current heading, groundspeed and variation are 102°, 120 knots and 14°W respectively. What is the ETE to the VOR?
The airspace associated with T-routes extends _____ either side of the centreline.
Refer to the low chart provided. Norway house airport elevation is:
_____ uses extra satellites in view to compare solutions and detect problems.
Which statement is correct regarding the dotted line highlighted?
Refer to the highlighted portion of the low chart. The number *3,500 represents:
An aircraft is maintaining an outbound track of 270° from an NDB on a heading of 275°. ATC requests that the aircraft intercepts an inbound track of 030°. Using a 90° intercept to track inbound, the aircraft should turn to a heading of:
D1594/20 NOTAMR D1483/20
A) CYYZ B) 2006141507 C) 2008302300
E) TWY V BTN TWY F AND TWY B CLSD.
A flight is departing CYYZ (GMT-5) on September 1, 2020 at 1900 local time. Which statement is correct regarding the NOTAM above?
_____ is the angular difference between the aircraft heading and the direction to the station, measured clockwise from the nose of the aircraft.
During VFR flight, unless told otherwise, a pilot should set a transponder code of:
HF is generally used for:
_____ is caused by the reflection of radio waves by the ionosphere. It is most pronounced just before and after sunrise/sunset.
Taxi, Climb and Arrival Fuel: 10.75 gallons
Time to Cruise Altitude: 15 minutes
Fuel Burn per Engine: 10.15 GPH
Planned TAS: 131 knots
Upper Winds: 055°M/61 knots
A multi-engine aircraft is departing Erik Nielsen Intl for a day VFR flight at 1944Z. The pilot plans to climb overhead YXY to his/her cruise altitude before proceeding enroute to Watson Lake via YXY V326 YQH. Using the information and low chart provided calculate the time at which the aircraft will arrive and the fuel required for the flight.
Track: 315°T
True Airspeed: 97 knots.
Variation: 10° East
FD excerpt for planned cruising altitude: 2517-12
Given the information above, calculate the groundspeed and magnetic heading.
An aircraft is cruising at 8,500 feet indicated altitude, and is approaching a ridge which is 7,500 feet AMSL. The altimeter setting for a nearby airport at 1,500 feet is 29.52 inches Hg. The OAT at 8,500 feet is -15°C. What is the actual ground clearance of the aircraft over the ridge, assume calibrated altitude is equal to indicated altitude?
The groundspeed is 134 knots and there are 340 nautical miles remaining to the destination. Calculate the ETE.
The Lambert Conformal Conic Projection is typically used in what charts?
Refer to the attached figure. Which OBS selection would center the CDI?
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