Test 19

1. Question

What type of fog occurs in cold weather when the temperature is well below freezing and water vapour forms directly into ice crystals?

Ice fog
Winter fog
Upslope fog
Radiation fog

2. Question

TAAs are developed for aircraft equipped with a(n):

NDB
VOR
ILS
FMS
GNSS

D and E
A, B, C, D and E
A, B and E
B and E

3. Question

An air parcel’s capacity to hold water vapour (at a constant pressure) is directly related to its:

Temperature
Dewpoint
Relative humidity
Density

4. Question

Unless otherwise stated, the maximum holding speed for an aircraft at 14,000 feet is:

230 KIAS
265 KIAS
200 KIAS
240 KIAS

5. Question

Refer to the RIVER FOUR ARR. If an aircraft were to reach EBNAP without obtaining further clearance, the PIC shall:

Maintain a track of 247°M and await further clearance
Maintain a track of 247°T and await further clearance
Maintain a heading of 247°M and await further clearance
Turn right and attempt the RNAV (GNSS) RWY 25

6. Question

The presence of rain on the windscreen causes:

Objects to appear lower than they actually are
The eye to see a horizon above the true one
Objects to appear higher than they actually are
The eye to see a horizon above the true one and objects lower than they actually are

7. Question

In Class B airspace, ATC separation is:

Provided to all aircraft
Provided to IFR traffic only
Provided to VFR traffic only
Provided to commercial operators only

8. Question

Accepting a visual approach clearance:

Automatically cancels the STAR procedure
Does not automatically cancel the STAR procedure
Automatically implies a landing clearance
Is not possible within a radar controlled environment

9. Question

A _____ instrument rating is issued for all aeroplanes where the flight test was conducted in a single engine aeroplane.

Group 3
Group 1
Group 2
Group 4

10. Question

A pilot conducting a visual approach into an uncontrolled aerodrome conducts a missed approach, the pilot shall:

Remain clear of cloud and complete a landing as soon as possible
Follow the published missed approach instructions for the IAP advised on the ATIS
Follow the published visual missed approach procedure in the CAP
Overshoot and immediately climb to the filed flight plan altitude and proceed to the filed alternate aerodrome

11. Question

When flying in the dark, a stationary light may appear to move if it is stared at for a prolonged period of time. This is known as:

Autokinesis
The leans
A somotogravic illusion
A graveyard spiral

12. Question

In a situation where an aircraft has commenced taxi for take-off and the visibility falls below the published level of service for the runway of intended operation, can the aircraft continue to taxi and legally take-off when the visibility is below the published level of service for that runway?

No, the aircraft cannot legally take-off but can taxi
No, the aircraft cannot legally take-off and is not permitted to taxi
Yes, the aircraft can legally take-off and taxi
Yes, the aircraft can legally take-off and taxi but only in accordance with a Low Visibility Operations Plan

13. Question

Refer to the approach chart provided for ILS RWY 06 at CYTH. If the temperature is -20°C, what is the MDA if an aircraft plans to circle for runway 25 at a speed of 135 KIAS. [Cold Weather Correction Chart]

1,340 feet
1,350 feet
1,300 feet
1,290 feet

14. Question

Rapid acceleration may cause the attitude indicator to indicate a:

Climb
Descent
Turn
Yaw

15. Question

In the case of a propeller-driven aeroplane where an alternate aerodrome is selected in the flight plan or flight itinerary, an IFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to allow the aircraft:

To fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome, and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes
To fly to the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome, and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes
To fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome, and then to fly for a period of 30 minutes
To fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 45 minutes

16. Question

Refer to the ILS RWY 06 for CYTH. The latest RVR report is R06/900V1800FT/D, is a private pilot with a valid instrument rating able to conduct the ILS straight in approach for RWY 06?

Yes, because the RVR is varying between distances less than and greater than the minimum RVR
Yes, because a localized phenomenon is occurring
No, because the reported RVR is less than the charted RVR
No, since RVR ‘B’ is not being reported

17. Question

The pilot of an IFR flight experiences a communications failure. The MEA is 12,000, the flight plan altitude is 14,000 and the altitude expected in a future ATC clearance is 16,000 feet. What is the appropriate altitude to maintain if in IMC?

16,000 feet
14,000 feet
12,000 feet
Any altitude above the minimum IFR altitude

18. Question

Should the pilot arrive at the missed approach holding fix prior to receiving further clearance, the pilot will:

Hold in a standard holding pattern on the inbound track used to arrive at the fix
If there is a published missed approach track to the fix, hold in a standard holding pattern inbound to the fix on this track
If there is a published shuttle or holding pattern at the fix, hold in this pattern regardless of the missed approach track to the fix
If there are published missed approach holding instructions, hold in accordance with these

A, B, C and D
A and B
C, B and D
B, C and D

19. Question

An 850 mb Upper Air Analysis Chart corresponds to an altitude of:

5,000 ft
10,000 ft
18,000 ft
34,000 ft

20. Question

Pilots shall not deviate from a clearance except when responding to a(n):

Advisory annunciator
ACAS/TCAS RA
Warning from a ground proximity warning system
Warning from an aircraft wind shear detection and warning system

B, C and D
A, B, C and D
B, C
Only B

21. Question

Which of the following correctly identifies a circling only instrument approach procedure?

VOR A
CIRCLING RWY 12
VOR (CIRC)
VOR RWY 02 A

22. Question

The pilot of an IFR aircraft operating at 8,000 feet is told by ATC to “Reset Transponder”, the pilot shall:

Reset the transponder and transmit the SQUAWK code currently assigned
Reset the transponder and transmit a SQUAWK code of 1000
Reset the transponder and transmit a SQUAWK code of 2000
Engage the IDENT feature of the transponder

23. Question

In the event of a missed approach during a contact approach where ATC provides missed approach instructions:

Obstacle and terrain clearance is the pilot’s responsibility
Obstacle and terrain clearance is the responsibility of ATC
Obstacle and terrain clearance is the responsibility of ATC and the pilot
Obstacle and terrain clearance is incorporated into the missed approach instructions

24. Question

Distance information received from DME is:

Slant range distance
Most accurate when directly above the station
Most accurate when at higher groundspeeds
Actual horizontal distance

25. Question

Only one non-precision approach is available at a pilot’s desired alternate aerodrome, the alternate weather minima requirement is:

800 – 2 or 300 – 1 above the lowest usable HAT/HAA and visibility, whichever is greater
600 – 2 or 300 – 1 above the lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater
400 – 1 or 200 – 1/2 above the lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater
Forecast weather must be no lower than 500 feet above a minimum IFR altitude that will permit a VFR approach and landing

26. Question

The normal, reliable coverage of a localizer is _____ of the course centreline.

18 NM within 10° of either side of the course centreline and 10 NM within 35°
18 NM within 10° of either side of the course centreline and 15 NM within 30°
10 NM within 10° of either side of the course centreline and 18 NM within 35°
18 NM within 35° of either side of the course centreline and 10 NM within 10°

27. Question

IFR aircraft within designated mountainous areas 1 and 5 shall be flown at an altitude of at least:

2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 NM of the aircraft in flight
1,500 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 NM of the aircraft in flight
500 feet above the highest obstacle and 2,000 feet horizontally
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 NM of the aircraft in flight

28. Question

Pilots should ensure that approach level RAIM will be supported at the destination or alternate airport for the ETA:

±15 min
±5 min
±30 min
±10 min

29. Question

Constant Descent Angle (CDA) is a technique for flying the final approach segment of a non precision instrument approach procedure as a constant descent from an altitude at or above the:

Final approach fix altitude
Intermediate approach fix altitude
Initial approach fix altitude
Missed approach fix altitude

30. Question

Which statement is NOT true regarding MUSKK?

It is 103 miles west of VLR along V300
It is 103 miles from YWG
The minimum reception altitude is 14,000 feet
It is along radial 285 from YWG

31. Question

Refer to the low chart provided. A normally aspirated multi-engine aircraft is departing Wabush for an IFR flight at 2015Z. The pilot plans to climb overhead YWK to his/her cruise altitude before proceeding enroute to Sept-Iles via YWK V316 YZV. Using the information provided calculate the time at which the aircraft will arrive and the fuel required for the flight.

Taxi, Climb, Arrival and Alternate Fuel: 15 gallons

Time to Cruise Altitude: 10 minutes

Fuel Burn per Engine: 15 GPH

Planned TAS: 135 Knots

Upper Winds: 210°M/15 knots

2147Z and 79 gallons
2147Z and 56 gallons
2147Z and 88 gallons
2147Z and 60 gallons

32. Question

Refer to the CYKA NDB B approach plate provided and select the correct statement.

Circling is not authorized north of the aerodrome
Circling is not authorized south of the aerodrome
Circling is not authorized for Category A aircraft
Circling is only authorized for Category A aircraft south of the aerodrome

33. Question

When using NDB’s, the twilight effect can be mitigated by:

Selecting an NDB further away from the aircraft
Flying on a clear night
Flying at a lower altitude
Selecting an NDB with a lower frequency

34. Question

In the absence of a published visibility for a particular runway:

A pilot may depart IFR by using a takeoff visibility that will allow avoidance of obstacles on departure. In no case should the takeoff visibility be less than 1/2 SM
A pilot may not depart IFR
A pilot may depart IFR by using a takeoff visibility that will allow avoidance of obstacles on departure. In no case should the takeoff visibility be less than 1 SM
A a pilot may depart IFR by using a takeoff visibility that will allow avoidance of obstacles on departure. In no case should the takeoff visibility be less than 1/4 SM

35. Question

The fact that only circling minima are published:

Does not preclude a pilot from landing straight-in if the required visual reference is available in sufficient time to make a normal approach and landing
Prohibits a pilot from landing straight-in even if the required visual reference is available in sufficient time to make a normal approach and landing
Does not preclude a pilot from landing straight-in if the required visual reference is available in sufficient time to make a normal approach and landing and the aircraft is equipped with GPS
Prohibits a pilot from landing straight-in the aircraft has an approach speed greater than 165 KIAS

36. Question

Refer to the CYRM aerodrome chart. What is the significance of the note regarding trees when departing from either runway 13 or 31?

They penetrate the obstacle clearance surface but do not require the publication of a non standard climb gradient
They penetrate the obstacle clearance surface and require the publication of a non standard climb gradient
They penetrate the obstacle clearance surface and require the publication of a climb gradient greater than 500 ft/NM
They penetrate the obstacle clearance surface and require the publication of a climb gradient greater than 300 ft/NM

37. Question

Select the correct definition of “Before Proceeding on Course (BPOC)”

A term used to indicate that a specified procedure must be completed prior to taking action to intercept the desired course
A term used to indicate that a specified altitude must be attained prior to taking action to intercept the desired course
A term used to indicate that a specified heading must be attained prior to taking action to intercept the desired course
A term used to indicate that a specified course must be attained prior to taking action to intercept the desired course

38. Question

Departure procedures are based on the premise that on departure an aircraft will climb on runway heading to . . . . . before turning.

400 feet AAE
200 feet AAE
500 feet AAE
1,000 feet AAE

39. Question

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) uses extra satellites in view to:

Compare navigation solutions and detect problems
Detect which satellite is faulty, and then exclude it from the navigation solution
Detect faulty ground-based navigation aids
Calculate transit time and compute pseudoranges

40. Question

The minimum safe altitude is the lowest altitude that will provide a minimum clearance of _____ under conditions of standard temperature and pressure above all objects located in an area contained within a sector of a circle with a _____ radius centred on a radio aid to navigation or a specified point.

1,000 feet, 25 NM
1,000 feet, 25 SM
2,000 feet, 25 NM
1,500 feet, 25 SM

41. Question

When instructed to fly runway heading on a SID, pilots are expected to:

Maintain the heading that corresponds with the extended centreline of the departure runway and do not apply drift corrections
Maintain the heading that corresponds with the extended centreline of the departure runway and apply drift corrections
Maintain the true track that corresponds with the extended centreline of the departure runway and apply drift corrections
Maintain the heading that corresponds with the extended centreline of the departure runway until 400 feet AGL then fly the heading associated with the SID

42. Question

Icing conditions in layer clouds are on average _____ than those in cumulus type clouds and have extensive _____ coverage.

Less severe, horizontal
Less severe, vertical
More severe, horizontal
More severe, vertical

43. Question

Generally, a low level jet is included in a GFA when it is expected to have a peak core speed of:

50 knots
60 knots
120 knots
80 knots

44. Question

A pilot at Airport A (elevation: 500 feet ASL) sets the altimeter to the airport’s altimeter setting of 29.80 inches of mercury prior to departure for Airport B, 400 NM away (elevation 1,000 feet ASL). A flight altitude of 6,000 feet is selected for the westbound flight so as to clear a 4,800 foot mountain ridge lying across track about 40 NM from B. The pilot does not change the altimeter subscale reading until he makes radio contact with B when 25 NM out and receives an altimeter setting of 29.20 inches of mercury. The OAT is -20°C, what was the actual ground clearance when the aircraft crossed the mountain ridge.

220 feet
630 feet
300 feet
1,200 feet

45. Question

A pilot is considering selecting CYYB as an alternate aerodrome. The only available approach at CYYB is the VOR/DME RWY 08. Given the information below and an ETA of 1100Z, is CYYB a suitable alternate?

TAF CYYB 050038Z 0501/0513 13007KT P6SM SCT150
BECMG 0503/0505 10015G25KT
FM050600 10015G25KT P6SM SCT080 TEMPO 0506/0508 P6SM -SN OVC040
FM050800 10020G30KT P6SM -SN SCT025 OVC040 TEMPO 0508/0510 2SM
-SN BLSN VV020
FM051100 12017G27KT 1SM SN BLSN VV008 TEMPO 0511/0513 1 1/2SM -SN BLSN VV009
RMK NXT FCST BY 050700Z=

Yes, because the ceiling and visibility is forecast to be 900 feet and 1 1/2 SM respectively, which is above the required alternate minima
No, because the ceiling and visibility is forecast to be 800 feet and 1 SM respectively, which is not above the required alternate minima
Yes, because the ceiling and visibility is forecast to be 2,000 feet and 2SM respectively, which is above the required alternate minima
No, because the forecast ceiling and visibility will be lower than the standard alternate minima