Test 18

When flying in the vicinity of stratus clouds, a pilot can expect:

Unless otherwise stated, the maximum speed during a descent while executing a shuttle procedure is:

A closed STAR terminates at the:

Precipitation that evaporates before reaching the ground is known as:

Characteristics of a cold front include:

A _____ instrument rating is issued for all aeroplanes where the flight test was conducted in a multi-engine centerline thrust aeroplane.

At a controlled airport the pilot may request a visual approach or ATC may initiate one provided that:

During an inadvertent left spin in IMC, after applying corrective actions, a pilot may experience a:

Which of the following statements is true regarding aircraft operating in the altimeter setting region?

ATC considers acceptance of a visual approach clearance as acknowledgement that the pilot should be responsible for:

1. Maintaining visual separation from the preceding aircraft that the pilot has been instructed to follow
2. Maintaining adequate wake turbulence separation from the preceding aircraft that the pilot has been instructed to follow
3. Navigating to the final approach course
4. Adhering to published noise abatement procedures
5. Avoiding Class F airspace
6. At uncontrolled airports, maintaining appropriate separation from VFR traffic that, in many cases, will not be known to ATC.

If seen on a GFA, this image indicates an area of:

Reduced Visibility Operations Plan (RVOP) takes effect when the aerodrome visibility is:

ATC reports “RVR ‘A’ 800, RVR ‘B’ 800 and ground visibility one-quarter statute mile.”

A rapid acceleration may lead to:

An aircraft received a taxi clearance to a specific runway, but while en-route to the runway the visibility dropped below the aerodrome operating visibility requirements and the operator-specific takeoff visibility requirements. At that time, however, another suitable runway at the aerodrome is available, where the visibility is being reported above take-off visibility requirements but below aerodrome operating visibility requirements. Can the aircraft continue to taxi to the more suitable runway where the visibility meets take-off requirements?

_____ aircraft include those with speeds between 141 KIAS and 165 KIAS.

In a descent, if the static port becomes blocked, the:

In the case of a propeller-driven aeroplane where an alternate aerodrome is not specified in the flight plan or flight itinerary, an IFR flight shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to allow the aircraft:

During a circling maneuver, the selection of the procedure required to remain within the protected area and to accomplish a safe landing:

Under which circumstances would an aircraft most likely experience the development of hoarfrost?

If an IFR aircraft experiences a radio communication failure in VMC, or if VMC are encountered after the failure:

Which of the following are requirements for a contact approach?

1. Familiarity with the aerodrome environment, including local area obstacles, terrain and noise sensitive areas
2. The aircraft is operated clear of cloud with a flight visibility of at least 1 NM
3. The aircraft is flown at an altitude of at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal radius of 5 NM
4. The pilot requests the approach and there is an approved functioning instrument approach

WSCN32 CWEG 262233
SIGMET H1 VALID 262230/270230 CWEG-
CZEG EDMONTON FIR SEV TURB OBS WTN 30 NM OF LINE /N4939 W11219/20 E CYQL –
/N4935 W11450/30 E CYXC SFC/FL030 QS NC
RMK GFACN32 GFACN31
END/WSCN22/CWAO

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the SIGMET provided above?

A pilot may cancel IFR, or close the IFR flight plan, provided the aircraft is:

1. Operating in VMC
2. Only operating in uncontrolled airspace
3. Outside Class B airspace
4. Within 25 NM of the destination aerodrome 
5. Radar identified

A pilot 17 miles from the localizer can expect a reliable localizer signal within _____ of the course centreline.

What role should automation play with respect to flight safety:

_____ are considered to be Standard Alternate Minima.

Refer to the VOR RWY 07 approach plate provided and select the correct statement.

Using the low chart, which statement is NOT true regarding an aircraft 50 miles north of YBR, southbound along V327?

When diverting to an alternate aerodrome with only one precision approach, the ATIS reports a ceiling of 200 feet and a visibility of 1SM, the pilot may:

Refer to the CYXX ILS RWY 07 approach plate provided and select the correct statement.

Which statement is correct regarding the dotted line highlighted?

On an IFR flight from CYSB to CYAM via V316, determine the highest MEA along the route of flight using the low chart provided.

The use of a straight-in minima is predicated upon the pilot having:

1. The wind direction
2. The wind speed
3. A recent traffic advisory
4. Two-way radio communication with UNICOM
5. A runway condition report

If a pilot is checking the VOR equipment while airborne over a landmark on a published radial, an error greater than _____ may indicate a faulty VOR receiver.

A system of mandatory IFR routes has been established to:

Which of the following is NOT a required visual reference that may be used by a pilot to make an assessment of the aircraft position and the rate of change of position relative to the nominal flight path when executing an instrument approach procedure.

1. The runway or runway markings
2. The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings
3. The approach lights
4. The slope indicator system
5. The parallel runway edge lights
6. The runway centre line lights
7. The aerodrome beacon

What is the magnetic bearing TO the station?

A normally aspirated multi-engine aircraft is departing Erik Nielsen Intl for an IFR flight at 1944Z. The pilot plans to climb overhead YXY to his/her cruise altitude before proceeding enroute to Watson Lake via YXY V326 YQH. Using the information and low chart provided calculate the time at which the aircraft will arrive and the fuel required for the flight.

Taxi, Climb, Arrival and Alternate Fuel: 10.75 gallons

Time to Cruise Altitude: 15 minutes

Fuel Burn per Engine: 10.15 GPH

Planned TAS: 131 knots 

Upper Winds: 055°M/61 knots

0.3 NM on each side of the centre line is the maximum RAIM alert limit for:

ATC assigned speeds, should be maintained within:

When instructed to fly runway heading, or when flying a SID for which no specific heading is published, a pilot must:

An aircraft equipped with a VOR may receive _____ from a VORTAC installation:

The following describes which type of IFR altitude?

The altitude above sea level (ASL) between specified fixes on airways or air routes that meets the IFR obstacle clearance requirements for the route segment in question.

While departing IFR from an uncontrolled aerodrome, a pilot must continue the listening watch from takeoff until:

The precipitation with the highest reflectivity is:

Unless otherwise stated, the inbound leg of a hold should not be more than 1.5 minutes when:

Which of the following altitudes must be temperature compensated?

1. Minimum Sector Altitudes
2. Terminal Arrival Area Altitudes
3. Minimum Descent Altitudes
4. Decision Altitudes
5. Cruise Altitudes
6. Any published minimum IFR altitude