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No person shall operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of more than . . . . . knots if the aircraft is below . . . . . feet within . . . . . NM of a controlled aerodrome unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance.
A holder of a private pilot licence with no additional rating or endorsements may act as pilot-in-command of
No person shall leave an engine of an aircraft running unless:
No person shall drop an object from an aircraft:
The appropriate cruising altitude or cruising flight level for an aircraft in level cruising flight in Northern Domestic Airspace is determined in accordance with
Life rafts must be carried onboard a single engine aeroplane if operating over water at more than:
An aircraft flying in accordance with Special VFR would be flying within:
A person may conduct aerobatic manoeuvres in an aircraft:
Which statement regarding operating and flight rules is correct?
The PIC of a VFR aircraft shall revise the estimated time and point of ADIZ entry and inform ATC when the aircraft is not expected to arrive within plus or minus _____ of the estimated point and time of ADIZ entry.
If a radiocommunication failure occurs in VFR flight within a control zone, the pilot in command shall:
Which of the following is considered Class G airspace?
When two aeroplanes are on final approach for landing, right of way is given to the:
Every aircraft shall carry an amount of fuel that is sufficient to provide for:
. . . . . means that part of an aerodrome that is intended to be used for the take-off and landing of aircraft and for the movement of aircraft associated with take-off and landing.
A person may conduct a takeoff or landing in an aircraft within a built up area of a city or town at a place not located at an airport if the flight is:
Which statement is NOT true?
A private pilot wishing to carry passengers must have conducted . . . . . takeoffs and landings in the last . . . . . months.
VFR flight is only permitted in controlled airspace if the following conditions are met:
Select the INCORRECT statement
The pilot of an arriving VFR flight shall make initial radio contact with a control tower in Class C airspace:
An aircraft departing from an uncontrolled aerodrome should climb straight ahead on runway heading until reaching . . . . . before commencing a turn in any direction.
Which of the following equipment is NOT required for power-driven aircraft operating in controlled airspace?
Class F CYD is a:
A flight plan can be filed with an:
Wind shear is characterized by:
In the vicinity of a thunderstorm, severe turbulence may extend up to _____ NM from severe thunderstorms.
Characteristics of a cold front include:
What type of fog occurs when the ground cools rapidly due to terrestrial radiation, and the surrounding air temperature reaches its dew point?
What weather conditions can be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
Select the INCORRECT statement regarding an air mass.
Squall lines are frequently associated with:
In the northern hemisphere winds normally rotate:
TAF CYIO 061838Z 0619/0707 21012KT P6SM -SN SCT015 OVC025 TEMPO
0619/0621 21/2SM -SHSN BKN009 OVC020
BECMG 0619/0621 20010KT
FM062100 20010KT P6SM FEW015 BKN030 OVC070 TEMPO 0621/0707 3SM
-SN OVC015
RMK FCST BASED ON AUTO OBS. NXT FCST BY 070100Z=
The lowest visibility will occur:
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
An AIRMET must be cancelled during its validity period when:
During a climb within an isothermal layer, the temperature will:
An extremely deep cold air mass which develops mostly in winter over surfaces of ice and snow is classified as . . . . . air mass.
What is density altitude?
If seen on a GFA, this image indicates an area of:
Which of the following terms represent a rapid and permanent change group on a TAF?
In _____ air, smoke and pollution is more readily mixed creating _____ visibility.
A cloud with an anvil shaped top is most likely a(n):
Smooth air, poor visibility, and stratiform clouds are characteristics of a:
A ceiling exists at the height of the first layer for which a coverage symbol of _____ is reported.
Lines joining points of equal pressure on a GFA are known as:
_____ is the process in which a liquid is changed to a vapour.
UACN10 CYXU 032133 YZ UA /OV YXU 090010 /TM 2120 /FL080 /TP PA31 /SK 020BKN040 110OVC /TA ‐12 /WV 030045 /TB MDT BLO 040 /IC LGT RIME 020‐040 /RM NIL TURB CYYZ‐CYHM
What is the reported outside air temperature in this PIREP?
Which of the following is not a ceiling:
Wind that blows from a body of water to land is known as a:
Hydroplaning occurs when:
The aircraft leaving ground effect will:
Rain on the windshield will give a pilot the illusion that makes the terrain seem _____ than it actually is.
In a descent, if the static port becomes blocked, the:
Common operational causes of detonation are:
An aircraft has a takeoff weight of 2,300 pounds and CG of 38 inches. Using the information provided, how much weight must be shifted to ensure the CG is within the acceptable range? [Appendix]
Which scenario is most likely to cause spark plug fouling?
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilation?
A _____ than usual runway can create an illusion that the aircraft is at a _____ altitude than it actually is.
Which is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
Dry Grass Runway
Weight: 2,550 pounds
Pressure Altitude: 1,000 feet
Temperature: 30°C
Wind Direction: 075°M
Wind Strength: 10 knots
Runway Direction: 035°M
Given the information above and the takeoff performance chart, calculate the takeoff ground roll and distance to clear a 50 foot obstacle:
Which CRFI value indicates the theoretical maximum decelerating capability of a vehicle on a dry surface?
When a propeller driven aircraft is flying at its best lift to drag ratio, it is flying:
What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
When the spiraling slipstream generated by a single engine aircraft strikes the vertical fin, it causes a _____ moment about the aircraft’s _____ axis.
To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
An aircraft’s empty weight and moment are 1,567 pounds and 61,410.73 lb-in respectively. The pilot weighs 225 pounds and the front and rear passengers weigh 150 and 290 pounds respectively. Baggage area one holds 50 pounds of baggage and baggage area two holds 15 pounds of baggage. Planned ramp fuel and fuel burn for the 3.2 hour flight are 40 gallons and 7.8 gallons per hour respectively. Eight pounds of fuel are consumed during engine start, taxi and runup. Using the charts provided, select the correct statement. [Appendix]
To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, it must be:
In a correctly executed turn, the _____ component of lift must be _____.
_____ is a result of differential drag and the slight difference in the lift generated between the left and right wings.
Static longitudinal stability is dependent upon the:
No person shall takeoff if there is frost, ice or snow on:
A(n) _____ in airspeed results in a(n) _____ turn radius.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding flight for maximum endurance for an aircraft with a reciprocating engine:
Which statement below is NOT true?
A pilot tunes to the Moose Jaw VOR and determines the aircraft is on the 068 radial with a FROM indication and the needle centred. The pilot then tunes to the Lumsden VOR and determines the aircraft is on the 185 radial with a FROM indication and the needle centred. Using the chart provided, determine the pilot’s location.
An aircraft is cruising at 10,000 feet indicated altitude, and is approaching a ridge which is 9,000 feet AMSL. The altimeter setting for a nearby airport at 2,500 feet is 29.82 inches Hg. The OAT at 10,000 feet is -20°C. What is the actual ground clearance of the aircraft over the ridge, assume calibrated altitude is equal to indicated altitude?
Fuel Burn: 5.7 GPH
Ground Speed: 102 knots
Distance to Destination: 145 nautical miles
With the information given, calculate the total fuel consumption.
Using the VNC provided, determine which statement is NOT true.
126.7 MHz is used for:
Refer to the VNC provided. What is the difference between A and B
Convert 10 US gallons to litres
Using an NDB it is possible to experience which of the following errors or limitations?
DME provides the pilot with _____ distance to the DME transmitter.
True Airspeed: 120 knots
Indicated Altitude: 3,000 feet
Temperature: -10°C
Altimeter Setting: 30.92 in. Hg
Calculate the calibrated airspeed given the information above.
Pilotage is:
A rhumb line most resembles a straight line drawn on a:
Sky waves are reflected back to earth from the:
An aircraft is on V112 at 12,500 feet. Using the chart provided, what class of airspace is the aircraft being operated?
The coordinates N44°15′ W78° 07′ identify which location?
Temperature: 30°C
Altimeter setting: 30.02 in. Hg
Aerodrome Elevation: 100 feet
Determine the density altitude given the information above.
Track: 270°M
True Airspeed: 110 knots
Variation: 14° East
FD: 2721-13
METAR CYOW 051400Z VRB02KT 15SM SKC 07/03
Use the VNC provided. The VOR at the Dauphin aerodrome is located:
_____ is an electronic navigation system used by military aircraft, providing both distance and direction information.
_____ are circles on the Earth’s surface whose plane lay parallel to the equator.
A minimum of _____ satellites is required for RAIM to function.
ELT’s send out a distinct distress signal on:
Distance: 27 nautical miles
Elapsed Time: 16 minutes
With the information given, calculate the ground speed.
Refer to the two CFS pages provided. Which of the following is NOT true regarding CYXX? [CFS1] [CFS2]
I0827/19 NOTAMN
A) CXXX B) 1911152329 C) 1912210100
E) CAM9 VANCOUVER INTL (WATER)
CREW AND EQPT VCY WEST DOCK
SR-SS
The NOTAM indicates that:
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